In this rebuttal we will examine Osamas defense and see how well he does in
addressing my claims.
Does the Bible Really Teach Muta?
As a sheer act of desperation and an obvious attempt of trying to justify
Muhammads perversions, Osama distorts the following text in order to prove that
the Bible condones Muta:
"If a man seduces a virgin who is not engaged to be married and lies with her,
he shall give THE BRIDE-PRICE for her and make her HIS WIFE. If her father utterly
refuses to give her to him, he shall pay money equal to THE BRIDE-PRICE for virgins."
Exodus 22:16-17
Anyone reading this passage can obviously see that this has absolutely nothing to
do with Muta. Rather, this is dealing with a situation in which two parties engage in
premarital sex. The verses demand that the person must marry the maiden whom he has seduced
into having sex and pay her the bride price. Now in situations where the father of the
young maiden refuses to give his daughter to the man then the father is to still receive
the bride price, and the reason for doing so should be clear to the readers. By accepting
the bride price the persons would be classified as husband and wife, with the sexual act
being that which consummated their marital union. The fathers refusal to give his
daughter to her seducer would function as a notice that the couple ended up getting a
divorce in order to protect his daughter from being shunned by the community which would
prevent her from ever remarrying.
In light of the foregoing, how in the world can anyone claim that this is analogous
to Muta? As we will discuss in more detail shortly, the main purpose for Muta was to
permit men to satisfy their lustful, perverted desires by temporarily marrying a woman
for a sum of money or fee. The text in Exodus, on the other hand, is dealing with
the unfortunate situation of persons who engage in premarital sex and has nothing to do
with a man pretending to marry a maiden for a sum of money with the intention of leaving
her as soon as the specified time period for this sexual perversion has terminated.
In other words, Muta is a contract where the man pays a certain price beforehand
for the temporary marriage (sexual service) that the woman will then deliver for
a certain period of time. That is what makes it legalized prostitution.
The above passage, on the other hand, specifies the punishment for the man
who did something forbidden. He has to pay a hefty sum for doing what was not
allowed. In Muta the man pays for sexual service that is then legally his.
In the Bible passage the man has to pay a penalty for doing what was forbidden.
With the same logic, one could claim that buying a car is equivalent to stealing
it and then paying a fine when getting caught.
Osamas gross reading of this text reminds us of the following passage:
"To the pure, all things are pure, but to the defiled and unbelieving, nothing
is pure; but both their minds and their consciences are defiled." Titus 1:15
It is only those whose hearts and minds are perverted who can distort Gods Word
in the manner in which Osama distorts it.
Osama complained that the Holy Bible prescribes no physical discipline such as flogging
for fornicators, or for those who engage in premarital sex, like that found in the Quran.
The answer is rather simple, why should there be a specific punishment for this sin? Is
God required to prescribe physical punishments for every specific sin a person commits?
Isnt Gods command that the person must marry the young maiden who he has slept
with punishment enough in that it shows that one cannot simply sleep with someone without
being bound to that individual for life?
What is even more amazing about Osamas objection is his selectivity. Osama has
no problem with the fact that the Quran nowhere prescribes specific physical punishments
for acts of homosexuality, lesbianism or bestiality like the Holy Bible. It is grossly
inconsistent for him to complain about the lack of physical correction regarding a
specific sin but have absolutely no problem with the Qurans utter failure to
explicitly address perverted acts such as homosexuality, lesbianism or Muhammads
permitting prostitution, let alone prescribe any specific punishments for such acts.
Osamas Challenge for Me
Apart from his gross lies and distortions of what the Holy Bible says about marriage
and divorce, Osama presented the following challenge to me:
Where in the Bible are non-virgin girls forbidden from
having sex with their boyfriends?
I was expecting that Osama would have given me a rather hard challenge, but I am not
surprised that this is the best he could do. Here is the answer from Gods true Word,
the Holy Bible:
"Now concerning the matters about which you wrote: It is good for a man not
to have sexual relations with a woman. But because of the temptation to sexual
immorality, EACH MAN SHOULD HAVE HIS OWN WIFE AND EACH WOMAN HER OWN HUSBAND. The husband
should give to his wife her conjugal rights, and likewise the wife to her husband. For the
wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. Likewise the husband
does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does. Do not deprive one another,
except perhaps by agreement for a limited time, that you may devote yourselves to prayer;
but then come together again, so that Satan may not tempt you because of your lack of
self-control." 1 Corinthians 7:1-5
"To the unmarried and the widows I say that it is good for them to remain single
as I am. But if they cannot exercise self-control, THEY SHOULD MARRY. For it is
better to marry than to be aflame with passion." 1 Corinthians 7:8-9
"Now concerning the betrothed, I have no command from the Lord, but I give my
judgment as one who by the Lord's mercy is trustworthy. I think that in view of the
present distress it is good for a person to remain as he is. Are you bound to a wife? Do
not seek to be free. Are you free from a wife? Do not seek a wife. But if you do marry,
you have not sinned, and if a betrothed woman marries, she has not sinned."
1 Corinthians 7:25-28
"If anyone thinks that he is not behaving properly toward his betrothed, if his
passions are strong, and it has to be, let him do as he wishes: let them marry--it is no
sin. But whoever is firmly established in his heart, being under no necessity but having
his desire under control, and has determined this in his heart, to keep her as his
betrothed, he will do well. So then he who marries his betrothed does well, and he who
refrains from marriage will do even better. A wife is bound to her husband as long
as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free TO BE MARRIED to whom she
wishes, only in the Lord." 1 Corinthians 7:36-39
"Or do you not know, brothersFOR I AM SPEAKING TO THOSE WHO KNOW THE
LAW--that the law is binding on a person only as long as he lives? Thus a married woman
is bound BY LAW to her husband while he lives, but if her husband dies she is released
from THE LAW OF MARRIAGE. Accordingly, SHE WILL BE CALLED AN ADULTERESS if she lives
with another man while her husband is alive. But if her husband dies, she is free
from that law, and if she marries another man she is not an adulteress." Romans 7:1-3
Paul plainly states that a person who burns with desire MUST GET MARRIED, not engage in
premarital sex. Paul even says that a woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives
and that she would be an adulteress if she were to live with another man while her husband
is still alive. Paul then says that widows can be married if they want, but doesnt
say that they are free to find a boyfriend to sleep with.
Here is what we find regarding divorce and remarriage:
"When a man takes a wife and marries her, if then she finds no favor in his
eyes because he has found some INDECENCY in her, and he writes
her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out of his
house, and she departs out of his house, and if she goes and becomes
another man's wife, and the latter man hates her and writes her a
certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out of his
house, or if the latter man dies, who took her to be his wife, then her
former husband, who sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife,
after she has been defiled, for that is an abomination before the LORD. And
you shall not bring sin upon the land that the LORD your God is giving you
for an inheritance. When a man is newly married, he shall not go out with
the army or be liable for any other public duty. He shall be free at home
one year to be happy with his wife whom he has taken." Deuteronomy 24:1-5
"It was also said, Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate
of divorce. But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on
the ground of sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery. And whoever marries a
divorced woman commits adultery." Matthew 5:31-32
"And in the house the disciples asked him again about this matter. And he said to
them, Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her,
and if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery. Mark 10:10-12
"To the married I give this charge (not I, but the Lord): the wife should not
separate from her husband (but if she does, she should REMAIN UNMARRIED or else be)
reconciled to her husband), and the husband should not divorce his wife." 1 Corinthians 7:10-11
The above citations assume that if specific individuals have legitimate grounds for
divorce then they are to remarry if they desire intimacy. In fact, Jesus goes so far as to
condemn individuals that have divorced for reasons other than sexual immorality, and
classifies any of their subsequent marriages as adultery. If God condemns such marriages
then how much more would he condemn and despise divorcees from engaging in premarital sex?
In order to summarize the preceding points, here is what we gather from the foregoing:
A person who burns with sexual desire must get married, which means that no one is
allowed to engage in premarital sex, whether that person has been married or not.
A married woman is bound to her husband till death.
A married couple cannot divorce each other for any legitimate reason with the exception
of sexual immorality.
A widow must either remain single or get married.
The command in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 presupposes that a divorcee is to remarry if he/she
wishes to engage in sexual intimacy, provided that their divorce was based on legitimate
grounds. Otherwise, they must remain single or return to their spouse according to
1 Corinthians 7:10-11.
Basically, what all these passages are teaching is that a person has the option to
either marry or remain single. There is no other option that allows for a person, whether
single or divorced, whether male or female, to engage in pre-marital sex. That is why
Exodus 22:16-17 demands that a person who has engaged in premarital sex marry that person.
For a more in depth look on what both the Holy Bible and Islam say about these specific
Notice the candid admission of these Muslims. These sources have no hesitation
classifying Muta as fornication, adultery and prostitution! They also warn Muslims from
engaging in this sick, filthy, and perverted act. Yet at the same time these sources are
aware that Muhammad permitted Muta for a time, which is an indirect admission that
Muhammad permitted fornication, adultery, and prostitution.
The reader should easily see that their reasoning and justification for Muhammads
permitting this perverted practice is utterly weak, with Osamas logic being even
worse. In order to expose the utter shallowness of their defense let us apply their
reasoning to other sick, filthy practices:
Islam allowed the raping of young girls and boys at the beginning, because at that time
there were so many people who had newly embraced Islam and there was the fear that they
might become apostates, because they had been used to committing sexual acts with children
during the Jaahiliyyah (Pre-Islamic period of Ignorance). So this kind of sex was
permitted for them for three days, then it was made haraam until the Day of Resurrection.
As child molestation was a custom amongst Arabs in the days of ignorance, it would
not have been wise to forbid it except gradually, as is the manner of Islam in removing
pre-Islamic customs which were contrary to the interests of people.
The only shortcoming with the above analogy is that the Quran does allow for the raping
and divorcing of young, prepubescent girls. It even has the audacity to call this
marriage:
O Prophet, when you divorce women, divorce them when they have reached their period.
Count the period, and fear God your Lord. Do not expel them from their houses, nor let
them go forth, except when they commit a flagrant indecency. Those are God's bounds;
whosoever trespasses the bounds of God has done wrong to himself. Thou knowest not,
perchance after that God will bring something new to pass As for your women who have
despaired of further menstruating, if you are in doubt, their period shall be three
months; and those who have not menstruated as yet. And those who are with
child, their term is when they bring forth their burden. Whoso fears God, God will appoint
for him, of His command, easiness. S. 65:1, 4 Arberry
The waiting period for the divorcing of women who havent even menstruated is
three months, showing that these arent even women but are young girls who
havent even attained puberty! Now a woman can only be divorced if she was first
married, so it is clear that this injunction assumes that young girls can be married and
divorced and remarry before they reach puberty. Even more, the purpose of this waiting
period is to ensure that the wife who is about to be divorced is not pregnant, or if she
is to make sure that the true father is known, i.e. that the child is from the current
husband, and not a next husband that she may marry afterwards. Thus, this verse
presupposes that the Muslim men who are married to prepubescent girls have sexual
intercourse with them.
The renowned Muslim commentator Abu-Ala Maududi, in his six volume commentary on
the Quran, confirmed this when he wrote:
"Therefore, making mention of the waiting-period for girls who have not yet
menstruated, clearly proves that it is not only permissible to give away the girl at this
age but it is permissible for the husband to consummate marriage with her. Now,
obviously no Muslim has the right to forbid a thing which the Quran has held as
permissible." (Maududi, volume 5, p. 620, note 13, emphasis added)
Let us therefore use another example:
Islam allowed incest at the beginning, because at that time there were so many people
who had newly embraced Islam and there was the fear that they might become apostates,
because they had been used to sleeping with their family members during the Jaahiliyyah
(Pre-Islamic period of Ignorance). So this kind of practice was permitted for them for
three days, then it was made haraam until the Day of Resurrection. As incest was
a custom amongst Arabs in the days of ignorance, it would not have been wise to forbid it
except gradually, as is the manner of Islam in removing pre-Islamic customs which were
contrary to the interests of people.
Would anyone buy this logic? Can there really be any justification for such perverted
and heinous acts to be permitted, even if it is for a short while? Doesnt this prove
that Muslims will say just about anything to exonerate Muhammad from all the gross
perversions he permitted in the name of God?
Sunni Narrations That Claim Muta is not Abrogated
The following verse is believed to have permitted Muta:
O ye who believe! Forbid not the good things which Allah hath made lawful for you,
and transgress not, Lo! Allah loveth not transgressors. S. 5:87 Pickthall
The hadith states:
Narrated Abdullah:
We used to participate in the holy battles led by Allah's Apostle and we had nothing
(no wives) with us. So we said, "Shall we get ourselves castrated?" He forbade
us that and then allowed us to marry women with a temporary contract AND RECITED TO US:
-- O you who believe! Make not unlawful the good things which Allah has made lawful
for you, but commit no transgression. (5.87) (Sahih al-Bukhari, Volume 7, Book 62, Number 13o)
Another passage which Muslims claim allowed for Muta is Sura 4:24:
And forbidden to you are married women, except such as your right hands
possess. This has ALLAH enjoined on you. And allowed to you are those beyond
that, that you may seek them by means of your property, marrying them properly
and not committing fornication. And for the benefit you receive from them, give them
their dowries, as fixed, and there is no blame on you what you do by mutual agreement
after the fixing of the dowry. Surely ALLAH is All-Knowing, Wise. Sher Ali
Noted Sunni commentator Ibn Kathir commented on the above text and claimed that:
"... <And how could you take it back and you have gone in unto each other.>
(4:21): the general meaning of which was given as evidence for Mut'a Marriage
(Marriage for an intended short time) which was, undoubtedly, PREVALENT at the onset of
Islam
, but was abrogated thereafter. Ash-Shafi'i and a group of scholars were
of the opinion that Mut'a Marriage had once been permitted but was
later invalidated on two occasions. Some were more assertive than that, while others
have made it lawful only if necessary
. The majority of scholars, however, have opposed this view. The correct statement is mentioned in Sahih Al-Bukhari and Sahih
Muslim, on the authority of Ali Ibn Abu Talib: The Prophet forbade Mut'a
Marriage and the meat of local skylarks (a type of bird) on the Day of Khaibar.
"It is narrated in Sahih Muslim, on the authority of Ar-Rabi' Ibn Sabrah Ibn
Ma'bad Al-Juhani, who had quoted from his father, who had participated in the Conquest of
Makkah with the Prophet who said: 'O, People! I have permitted you to do Mut'a
Marriage
and Allah has forbidden it until the Day of Judgment. Therefore,
whosoever is married to a woman through this type of marriage, should release them and
should not take anything back from Mahr you have given them.' According to Muslim, it was
said during Hujjatal Wadaa' (Farewell Pilgrimage). This Hadith has other meanings in the
Book of Al-Ahkaam." (Tafsir Ibn Kathir, abridged by Sheikh Muhammad
Nasib Ar-Rafa'i [Al-Firdous Ltd., London; First edition 2000], part 5, pp. 29-30
underline and capital emphasis ours)
The following Shiite site quotes a slew of Sunni references admitting that this passage
initially included an additional clause not found today which justified Muta:
Sunni Doubts as to the Correct Recitation of this Verse
Beyond these facts, we see that not only do the majority of Sunni 'ulama accept
that this verse was revealed about Mut'ah, but a large majority also believe that there
has been tahreef (change, distortion) in this verse in order to create confusion as to its
real meaning. A number of Sunni hadeeth claim that this verse was read in a different way
than it is today, in a way that makes it clear that it refers to Mut'ah. Imam of Ahl
as-Sunnah Abu Hayyan Andalusi in his commentary of Sharh Afhaq 'al Bahar al Maheet' Volume
3 page 218 states:
"Ubay ibn Ka'b, Ibn Abbas and Ibn Jabeer would read the verse with the words 'for
a prescribed period'.
A number of Sunni Tafsir claim that the words "for a prescribed period" were
read by the Sahaba when they recited this verse:
Tafseer Durre Manthur Volume2 P. 40 -
Tafseer Tabari Volume 5 p.
Tafseer Kabeer Volume 3 p. 94
Fathul Qadeer Volume 1 p. 14
Tafseer Ibn Katheer Volume 1 p. 84
Tafseer Ruh al Maani Volume 5 p.
Tafseer Kashaf p. 20
Tafseer Mazhari Volume2 p. 4
Tafseer Ahkam al Quran Volume2 p. 47
Tafseer Mu'alim al Tanzeel p. 63
Mustadrak Al Hakim volume 2 p. 47
Al Musahif by Abi Bakr Sijistani p. 3
Tafseer Mawahib al Rahman page 4 part 5
Tafseer Haqqani volume5 p.
Tafseer Jama Al Bayan Volume1 p. 66
Neel al Authar Volume2 p. 53 Kitab Nikah
Tafseer Qurtabi Volume5 p. 30
Dhurqani Sharh Muwatta Volume1 p. 54
Kitab al Musahaf page 342
Al Bahar al Maheet Volume 3 page 218
In later chapters when pages of sources are not mentioned then we are referring to
references from above pages.
Specifically, the companion Abdullah ibn Masu'd is cited as reading the verse on Mut'ah
with the additional words 'for a prescribed period' confirming its legitimacy, as well as
testifying to tahreef in Uthman's compiled Quran. This is cited in the following sources:
Tafseer Maar Volume5 p. 5
Tafseer Jama al Bayan Volume6 p. 9
All of these sources agree that Ibn Masud would read the verse of "Istimatum"
followed by the words 'for a prescribed period'. Can we conclude that these Sahaba were
liars or were they suggesting that words were missing in the Quran collected by Uthman?
The companion Ubay Ibn Ka'b is also said to have stated that the verse of Mut'ah included
the words "for a prescribed period" and that the Companions remained silent when
he recited the verse in this way. We read in Tafseer Kabeer Volume 3 p. 94:
Its proven that this verse came down about Mut'ah, first reason for this is Ibn Kaab
would read the verse on Mut'ah with the "Ajol Masomee", Ibn Abbas would also
read it in the same way and the Ummah did not order them to stop reading verses in this
way.
The implication of the hadeeth is this: that the Ummah accepted the addition of the words
"for a prescribed period". According to Sunni aqa'id, ijma' (consensus of the
Ummah) is a source of Islamic law. We see that the Ummah consented to these additional
words in the recitation of these important companions. In a later discussion, we will see
how ijma' is used by the enemies of the Ahl al-Bayt (as) to justify 'Umar's prohibition of
Mut'ah, arguing that the Companions were silent about 'Umar's innovation and that,
therefore, they were pleased with it. However, we see the Sunni hadeeth literature
claiming ijma' for something which contradicts the version of the Qur'an constituted by
'Uthman, which clearly supports the position that Mut'ah was halaal and that verse 4:24
was revealed in order to legitimise the practice of temporary marriage.
Further evidences in this regard:
Imam of Ahl as-Sunnah Sulayman bin Ashash Sijistani the son of the author of Sunan Abu
Daud in his renowned Sunni work 'al Musahaf' page 286 records as follows: "Ubay bin
Ka'b and Saeed bin Jabeer would read this verse with the words 'for a prescribed
period'"
Ibn Abbas would read the verse of Mut'ah with the words "for a prescribed period'
and openly declared this to be halaal. Tafseer Al Baghawi, Al Musami Mualim al Tanzeel, p. 414
(http://www.answering-ansar.org/answers/mutah/tafseer_albaghawi_p414.jpg)
'Abu Nadhra asked Ibn Abbas about Mut'ah and he replied "haven't you read the verse
in Surah Nisa:- "those women for prescribed period"' Abu Nadhra said
"I did not read the verse in this way". Ibn Abbas replied that "Allah has
revealed the verse in this manner". Ibn Abbas swore that this verse was about Mut'ah. Tafseer Durre Manthur Volume2 P. 40
This recital was also recorded in Tafseer Tabari, on the authority of Ibn Ka'b: Tafseer al-Tabari, p. 14 & 15
(http://www.answering-ansar.org/answers/mutah/tafseer_altabari_p14_15.jpg)
Allamah Sijistani in al Musahaf page 342 records that: Abu Nadhra said: Ibn Abbas (RA)
recited the verse 4:24 with the addition of "to an appointed time". I
said to him: "I did not read it this way." Ibn Abbas replied: "I swear by
Allah, this is how Allah revealed it," and Ibn Abbas repeated this statement three
times." This tradition has been similarly recorded in Tafseer Durre Manthur
Ibn Abbas claimed that the other Sahaba also read the verse on Mut'ah with the words
'for a prescribed period' Tafseer Dur al-Manthur Volume 2, P. 140 & 141
(http://www.answering-ansar.org/answers/mutah/tafseer_dur_almanthur_v2_p140_141.jpg)
We also read in Durre Manthur that Ibn Abbas said: "Mut'ah was practised from the
outset of Islam and the Companions would read the verse of Mut'ah with the words 'for a
prescribed period'.
We have seen that many narration's claim that Ibn Abbas recited the verse in a fashion
that clearly refers to Mut'ah. The famous hadeeth narrator and scholar Al-Hakim in
Mustadrak al Hakim volume 1 page 305 graded the words of Ibn Abbas claim that the verse of
Mut'ah included the words 'for a prescribed period' to be a Sahih narration. After
recording the words of Ibn Abbas, reading the words 'for a prescribed period' in the verse
he grades the narration Sahih according to the criterion of Muslims. No Sunni can deny the
status of Hakim within their sect; the famous scholar Shah Waliyullah graded Hakim as the
mujadid (reviver of the faith, perhaps the highest praise that can be given to a Sunni
'alim by his community) in the fourth century. In Izalathul Khifa p. 77 part 7, al
Muhaddith Shah Waliyullah stated:
A Mujadid appears at the end of every century: The Mujtahid of the 1st century was Imam
of Ahlul Sunnah, Umar bin Abdul Aziz. The Mujadid of the 2nd century was Imam of Ahlul
Sunnah Muhammad Idrees Shaari the Mujadid of the 3rd century was Imam of Ahlul Sunnah Abu
Hasan Ashari the Mujadid of the 4rth century was Abu Abdullah Hakim Nishapuri.
(Mutah, A Comprehensive Guide, "Quranic Evidences for the Legitimacy of
Mutah"; Source)
Osama cited certain hadiths to show that Muhammad abrogated this perverted practice.
What Osama failed to tell his readers is that there are Sunni narrations that say that
this practice was being observed all the way till the time of Umar ibn Al-Khattab who
stopped it, but then later reinstated it. Basically, this means that Muhammad didnt
abrogate Muta at all, but some Muslims lied and claimed that he did. For instance, ar-Razi
wrote of Muta:
"Mutah marriage involves a man hiring a woman for a specific amount of
money, for a certain period of time, to have sex with her. The scholars agree that this
Mut'ah marriage was authorized in the beginning of Islam. It is reported that when the
Prophet came to Mecca to perform umrah, the women of Mecca dressed up and adorned
themselves. The companions complained to the Prophet that they had not had sex for a long
time, so he said to them: Enjoy these women." (At-tafsir al-kabir, Q. 4:24)
And:
"No Muslim disputes that Mut'ah marriage was allowed in early Islam, the
difference is whether it has been abrogated or not." (Ibid.)
The hadith collections affirm that there was debate regarding whether this practice had
been abrogated:
Narrated Abu Jamra:
I heard Ibn Abbas (giving a verdict) when he was asked about the Muta with the
women, and he permitted it (Nikah-al-Muta). On that a freed slave of his said
to him, "That is only when it is very badly needed and women are scarce." On
that, Ibn Abbas said, "Yes." (Sahih Al-Bukhari, Volume 7, Book 62,
Number 51)
Ibn Uraij reported: 'Ati' reported that Jabir b. Abdullah came to perform 'Umra, and we
came to his abode, and the people asked him about different things, and then they made a
mention of temporary marriage, whereupon he said: Yes, we had been benefiting ourselves by
this temporary marriage during the lifetime of the Holy Prophet (may peace be upon him)
and during the time of Abu Bakr and Umar. (Sahih Muslim, Book 008,
Number 3248)
Urwa b. Zubair reported that Abdullah b. Zubair (Allah be pleased with him)
stood up (and delivered an address) in Mecca saying: Allah has made blind the hearts of
some people as He has deprived them of eyesight that they give religious verdict in favour
of temporary marriage, while he was alluding to a person (Ibn 'Abbas). Ibn Abbas called
him and said: You are an uncouth person, devoid of sense. By my life, Mut'a was practised
during the lifetime of the leader of the pious (he meant Allah's Messenger, may peace be
upon him), and Ibn Zubair said to him: Just do it yourselves, and by Allah, if you do that
I will stone you with your stones. Ibn Shihab said. Khalid b. Muhajir b. Saifullah
informed me: While I was sitting in the company of a person, a person came to him and
he asked for a religious verdict about Muta and he permitted him to do it
. Ibn
Abu Amrah al-Ansari (Allah be pleased with him) said to him: Be gentle. It was
permitted in the early days of Islam, (for one) who was driven to it under the stress of
necessity just as (the eating of) carrion and the blood and flesh of swine and then Allah
intensified (the commands of) His religion and prohibited it (altogether). Ibn Shihab
reported: Rabi b. Sabra told me that his father (Sabra) said: I contracted temporary
marriage with a woman of Banu 'Amir for two cloaks during the lifetime of Allah's
Messenger (may peace be upon him); then he forbade us to do Muta. Ibn Shihab said:
I heard Rabi b. Sabra narrating it to Umar b. Abd al-Aziz and I was
sitting there. (Sahih Muslim, Book 008,
Number 3261)
Abu Nadra reported: While I was in the company of Jabir b. Abdullah, a person came to
him and said that Ibn 'Abbas and Ibn Zubair differed on the two types of Mut'a
(Tamattu of Hajj 1846 and Tamattu with women), whereupon Jabir said: We used
to do these two during the lifetime of Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him). Umar
then forbade us to do them
, and so we did not revert to them. (Sahih Muslim, Book 008,
Number 3250)
One narration even says that, during the caliphate of Umar, a woman got pregnant as a
result of Muta:
Yahya related to me from Malik from Ibn Shihab from Urwa ibn az-Zubayr that Khawla ibn
Hakim came to Umar ibn al-Khattab and said, "Rabia ibn Umayya made a temporary
marriage with a woman and she is pregnant by him." Umar ibn al-Khattab went
out in dismay dragging his cloak, saying, "This temporary marriage, had I come across
it, I would have ordered stoning and done away with it!" (Maliks Muwatta, Book 28,
Number 28.18.42)
Another renowned Sunni exegete and historian al-Tabari claimed that Umar rescinded his
prohibition:
According to Muhammad b. Ishaq - Yahya b. Main Yaqub b. Ibrahim -
Isa b. Yazid b. Dab - Abd al-Rahman b. Abi Zayd Imran b.
Sawdah: I said the morning prayer with Umar, and he recited the Subhan chapter and
one other. Then he left. I went off with him, and he asked if there was anything he could
do. I told him there was, so he asked me to join him. I did so and, when he entered [his
house], he gave me permission [to enter]. There he was on a bed with nothing on it. I told
him I wanted to give him some advice. His reply was, "The person giving good advice
is welcome anytime." I said, "Your community finds fault with you on four
counts." (Umar) put the top of his whip in his beard and the lower part on his
thigh. Then he said, "Tell me more." I continued, "It has been mentioned
that you declared the lesser pilgrimage forbidden during the months of the [full]
pilgrimage. The Messenger of God did not do this, nor did Abu Bakr, though it is
permitted." He answered, "It is permitted. If they were to perform the lesser
pilgrimage during the months of the pilgrimage, they would regard it as being in lieu of
the full pilgrimage, and (Mecca) would be a deserted place that year, and the pilgrimage
would be celebrated by no one, although it is part of God's greatness. You are
right." I continued, "It is also said that you have forbidden temporary
marriage, although it was a license (rukhsah) given by God. We enjoy temporary
marriage for a handful [of dates], and we can separate after three nights." He
replied, "The Messenger of God permitted it at a time of necessity. Then people
regained their life of comfort. I do not know of any Muslim who has practiced this or gone
back to it. Now anyone who wishes can marry for a handful [of dates] and separate after
three nights. You are right." I continued, "You emancipatea slave girl
if she gives birth, without her master's [consent to] the emancipation." He replied,
"I added one thing that is forbidden to another, intendingonly to do some
good.I ask Gods forgiveness." I continued, "There have been
complaints of your raising your voice against your subjects and your addressing them
harshly." He raised his whip, then ran his hand down it right to the end. Then he
said, "I am Muhammad's traveling companion"- he [in fact] sat behind him at the
raid on Qarqarat al-Kudr (The History of al-Tabari: The Conquest of Iran, translated
by G. Rex Smith [State University of New York Press, Albany, 1994], Volume XIV, pp. 139-140;
bold emphasis ours)
To add to this mass confusion, this next hadith says that the Quran never abrogated
Muta:
Narrated 'Imran bin Husain:
The Verse of Hajj-at-Tamatu was revealed in Allahs Book, so we performed it with
Allahs Apostle, and nothing was revealed in Qur'an to make it illegal, nor did
the Prophet prohibit it till he died. But the man (who regarded it illegal) just
expressed what his own mind suggested. (Sahih Al-Bukhari, Volume 6, Book 60,
Number 43)
The Saudi translator of Sahih al-Bukhari, Muhammad Muhsin Khan, has changed the word
Mut'a to Hajj-at-Tamatu, even though the Arabic text of the Hadith that is placed next to
the English says Mut'a. Yet even here the point is still clear since the expression
Hajj-at-Tamatu refers to the practice of Muta during the time of Hajj, i.e. Muta of Hajj.
The practice of Muta may account for why the following text is worded in the way that
it is:
And let those who do not find the means to marry keep chaste until Allah makes them
free from want out of His grace. And (as for) those who ask for a writing from among those
whom your right hands possess, give them the writing if you know any good in them, and
give them of the wealth of Allah which He has given you; and do not compel your slave
girls to prostitution, WHEN THEY DESIRE TO KEEP CHASTE, in order to seek the frail
good of this world's life; and whoever compels them, then surely after their compulsion
Allah is Forgiving, Merciful. S. 24:33 Shakir
From the way this passage is worded one can easily conclude that prostitution is only a
sin when the slave girl desires chastity. Otherwise, if she does not desire to be chaste
then it is okay for her to prostitute herself for gain. This interpretation makes sense in
light of the practice of temporary marriages. After all, there must be women who are
willing to be used and degraded in this manner for Muta to even be possible.
As anyone can see, this practice is nothing more than a form of legalized prostitution
since its sole aim is to gratify the carnal perversions of men.
Despite the Sunni claim that Muta has been cancelled one will still find Shiite Muslims
condoning and practicing it, as the following links show:
Seeing that Muta was for a different purpose than regular marriage we shouldnt
therefore be surprised that the same rules wouldnt apply.
In fact, we will allow the same Muslim girl who was duped into doing Muta answer Osama
on this very point:
In Mut'a, THERE IS NO DIVORCE; once you pay the set amount of money and the assigned
time ends there is no rights, no duty, no inheritance laws, or divorce process. The only
law is that the woman waits for a period of 45 days before she enters into another Mut'a,
while the man can have immediate one, even while he is married or in another Mut'a. This
goes against what Allah assigned for marriage in the Qura'n. In Surah 2 Ayah 228 Allah
says, Divorced women shall wait concerning themselves for three monthly periods and it is
not lawful for them to hide what Allah hath created in their wombs. If they have faith in
Allah and the last day." In Mut'a she can be pregnant with the child of her first
Mut'a husband and be married to her second Mut'a husband or the permanent. In the book of
Mustadrak-Alwasa il (Shia authentic hadith book) vol. 7 book 3 pg. 506 rewayah 8762, it
states that the prophet said that who ever cannot find the ability to get married let him
fast, my ummah s protection is fasting. Also in Beharul-Alanwaar (Shia hadith book in
vol.14 pg. 327 rewayah 50:21) it states that Imam Ali said and seek protection from women
desire by fasting. What is the need for fasting if Mut'a is OK? It is obvious that this
contradict this idea. I hope and pray that we will take this matter seriously.
More importantly, it is irrelevant whether a woman who has committed Muta must observe
iddah, which means that she could only engage in Muta four times out of the year. The fact
is that the iddah didnt stop the Quran or Muhammad from permitting Muta, nor does it
prevent Shiites from engaging in this perversion:
Iddah (Waiting Period) in Mut'ah
Iddah is obligatory upon women in Mut'ah, just like in Nikah i.e.
A woman cannot enter into Mut'ah marriage, till the time she has become pure by
observing the 'iddah (waiting period) from her earlier husband.
And after expiration of Mut'ah marriage, again she has to observe 'iddah, before getting
married (either Nikah or Mut'ah) to any other person.
(Mutah, A Comprehensive Guide, "What is Mutah?";
source)
Basically, this implies that when a man is finished with one woman he could then find
another one to prostitute while the first one waited for her iddah to finish.
Osama has confused a question of fact with a question of relevance in an attempt of
trying to blow some smoke in order to prevent his audience from seeing the real issues. We
are not surprised that he would try to do this nor surprised that he didnt bother to
address, but conveniently ignored, the fact that a womans waiting period did
absolutely nothing to prevent Muhammad from condoning legalized prostitution called Muta.
I guess he knows more than his own prophet did on this subject.
Osama asks where would these public prostitutes exist in the Islamic society and which
caliph would allow them to flourish in Muslim society. The answer? The same place where
the Muslim men found women to engage in prostitution which Muhammad passed off as
temporary marriage!
Osama again has confused a question of fact with a question of relevance. It is simply
irrelevant to raise the issue of where prostitutes would live when the fact remains that
Muhammad permitted Muta, plain and simple. It is quite obvious that neither Muhammad nor
the Muslims were worried about the public proliferation of prostitutes since they were too
busy engaging them in Muta!
Osama also appealed to Sura 24:2 which states that fornicators are to be punished
as a way of proving that prostitution is not sanctioned in Islam:
The woman and the man guilty of adultery or fornication, - flog each of them
with a hundred stripes: Let not compassion move you in their case, in a
matter prescribed by God, if ye believe in God and the Last Day:
and let a party of the Believers witness their punishment. Y. Ali
Osama fails to tell his readers that not all filthy perverted sexual acts are
classified as fornication or evil by Osamas false god:
And all married women (are forbidden unto you) save those (captives) whom your
right hands possess. It is a decree of Allah for you. Lawful unto you are all
beyond those mentioned, so that ye seek them with your wealth in honest wedlock, not
debauchery. And those of whom ye seek content (by marrying them), give unto them their
portions as a duty. And there is no sin for you in what ye do by mutual agreement after
the duty (hath been done). Lo! Allah is ever Knower, Wise. S. 4:24 Pickthall
Here, Osamas deity allows adulterous acts with captive married women.
Muhammads god also allowed him to marry his adopted sons divorcee, a clear act
of incest and adultery:
And when you said to him to whom Allah had shown favor and to whom you had shown a
favor: Keep your wife to yourself and be careful of (your duty to) Allah;
and you concealed in your soul what Allah would bring to light, and you feared men, and
Allah had a greater right that you should fear Him. But when Zaid had accomplished
his want of her, We gave her to you as a wife, so that there should be no
difficulty for the believers in respect of the wives of their adopted sons, when they have
accomplished their want of them; and Allah's command shall be performed. S. 33:37 Shakir
Hence, Muta happens to be one of those perverted acts which Allah made lawful and
called good.
The Shiites which we have been referencing address some other passages often used to
refute Muta such as Sura 23:5. We cite some of these points here since they equally refute
Osamas pathetic rebuttal:
Imam of Ahl as-Sunnah Yusuf al-Qaradawi in his article on Nikah, takes the opportunity
to attack the concept of Mut'ah and advances this rational:
Yusuf al Qaradawi states:
"The reason it was permitted in the beginning was that the Muslims
were passing through what might be called a period of transition from jahiliyyah to Islam.
Fornication was very common and widespread among the pre-Islamic Arabs. After the advent
of Islam, when they were required to go on military expeditions, they were under great
pressure as a result of being absent from their wives for long periods of time. Among the
Believers were some who were strong in faith and others who were weak".
Similarly the Islamic Voice Magazine, in their article on Mut'ah claimed:
Islamic Voice Magazine states:
History tells us that the Prophet (Pbuh) permitted Muta' on a few
occasions of long collective journeys but finally forbade it forever in 10 AH after the
last Hajj in his lifetime. The Nikah of Muta' (Contract of marriage for a limited period)
was an ancient practice among Arabs. Arabs were sunk in fornication and adultery while
Islam did not permit sexual relations outside the genuine wedlock. The binding was so
harsh on them that sensing their weakness, the Prophet (Pbuh) permitted them on four
occasions of long journeys, the Muta' which had a social sanction in their eyes. He had
sensed that all of them could not bear to keep away from women for months so the temporary
permission of Muta' was granted as it was better than indiscriminate sex. It may be noted
that the permission of Muta' was on all four occasions granted on long journeys. There is
not one occasion when the Prophet announced the permission while in town. It is a matter
of interpretation whether the permission remained in force after those journeys or not.
Those who believe in Muta's prohibition should also learn from the Prophet (Pbuh) the
wisdom of gradually implementing the laws that are hard to practise for the beginners.
Reply - Had the Sahaba still not abandoned the traits of jahiliyya in the 8th Hijri?
The comments of Qaradawi and Islamic Voice Magazine are indeed an insult of the noble
companions, were they still embedded in jahiliyya, at the time of the conquest of Makka in
the 8th Hijri or as Islamic Voice claim 10th Hijri? Are these authors suggesting that the
great Sahaba who were willing to sacrifice their lives / possessions upon every order of
Rasulullah (s) were (at this late stage of the Prophetic mission) so influenced by the
practises of jahiliyya that they could not control their sex drives upon an order of
Rasulullah (s)? Is it not insulting to suggest that as Qaradawi suggests, this 'period of
transition from jahiliyya to Islam' had not been attained by the Sahaba in 8 Hijri, just
two years before the death of Rasulullah (s)? According to the Islamic Voice magazine the
beloved Sahaba were so 'weak' that Rasulullah (s) 'sensed that all of them could not bear
to keep away from women for months so the temporary permission of Mut'ah'. Both authors
are suggesting that the same Sahaba that had turned their back on their families, who
would willingly accept every word of Rasulullah (s) without raising any objections, were
unable to let go of the jahiliyya practise of Mut'ah. And what can we say about Islamic
Voice comments 'Those who believe in Muta's prohibition should also learn from the Prophet
(Pbuh) the wisdom of gradually implementing the laws that are hard to practise for the
beginners'. Were the Sahaba who stood shoulder to shoulder with Rasulullah (s) who
(according to Sunni accounts) always stood faithfully at his side through thick and thin
were merely 'beginners' when Mut'ah was banned at the time of the Farewell Pilgrimage in
the 10th Hijri? Are comments such as these not slurs against the Sahaba? (Mutah,A Comprehensive Guide, "The Argument that Mutah is Immoral";
source)
And:
Reply
This is a very weak argument for several reasons. The first and most glaring
mistake is chronological. It is indeed very sad that individuals such as Dr. Salamah, in
their efforts to protect Umar they haven't bothered contemplating their claim before
publishing it in an open forum. The verse of Mut'ah 'Istamatum' that has allegedly been
attributed to Ayesha and Ibn Abbas is in Surat an-Nisa and this is verse was revealed
while the Prophet (s) was in Madinah. Surah Momineen and Surah Maarij, the verses quoted
above, both descended in Makka
As anybody with even the most basic knowledge of Islam knows that the Prophet (s)
migrated from Makka to Madinah, meaning he was in Makkah first. Allamah Shabbir Ahmad
Uthmani in Fath al Mulhim, Sharh Muslim Volume 3 page 221 in his discussion of the verse, 'And
those who preserve their private parts except with their spouses or what their right hands
posses' - states:
"The verse being referred to descended in Makka"
Whilst these verses descended in Makka, Sunni traditions confirm that Mut'ah was practised
much later, during the battle of Khayber. This means that, according to Dr. Salamah, the
abrogating verse (nasikh) was revealed before the abrogated verse (mansukh). This is, of
course, a logical impossibility: how can the verse of Mut'ah be abrogated by the verses
from Surat al-Mu'minun when the verse of Mut'ah was revealed after those verses? It is
like trying to defend the legitimacy of Mu'awiya by acknowledging that he was conceived
first and his parents married after.
Allamah Baghdadi in his discussion of the verse 'And those who preserve their private
parts except with their spouses or what their right hands posses' also acknowledges this
fact in his Tafseer Ruh al Ma'ani Volume 9 page 10:
"This verse is Makkan and descended before the Hijrah [migration], since Mut'ah
was halaal after the Hijrah, it is difficult to advance this as evidence of the illegality
of Mut'ah".
Renowned Deobandi scholar Allamah Waheed'udeen az Zaman Hyderabadi in Lughath al Hadeeth
Volume 5 page 9 said:
"Mut'ah existed at the outset of Islam and this is a proven fact, when this verse
descended 'And those who preserve their private parts except with their spouses or what
their right hands posses' it became haraam. This may lead to objections being raised due
to the fact that the verse is Makkan and the practise of Mut'ah afterwards is an
established fact"
Also in Lughath al Hadeeth Volume 3 page 105, az Zaman, in his discussion of the word
'Shaqee' states:
"The verse 'except with their wives or those [women] whom their right hands
possess' appears in two Surah's and both are without a doubt Makkan. The practise of
Mut'ah existed after the descent of these verses".
In his Tayseer al Bari Sharh Bukhari, Volume 6 page 116 Allama az Zaman said:
"Those who rely on 'except with their wives or those [women] whom their right
hands possess' are in error as this is a Makkan verse and there is agreement that Mut'ah
was halaal after this".
Maulana Sayyid Abu'l Maudoodi in his discussion of the verse of Surah Mu'minun in Tafheem
ul Qur'an Volume 8 page 12 footnote 4 states:
"Some commentators have proved the prohibition of Mut'ah (temporary marriage) from
this verse. They argue that the woman with whom one has entered into wedlock temporarily,
can neither be regarded as a wife nor a slave girl. A slave girl obviously she is not, and
she is also not a wife, because the legal injunctions normally applicable to a wife are
not applicable to her. She neither inherits the man, nor the man her; she is neither
governed by the law pertaining to 'iddah (waiting period after divorce or death of
husband), divorce, sustenance nor by that pertaining to the vow by man that he will not
have conjugal relations with her. She is also from the prescribed limit of four wives.
Thus when she is neither a 'wife' not a 'slave girl' in any sense, she will naturally be
included among those 'beyond this', whoso seeker has been declared a 'transgressor' by the
Qur'an.
This is a strong argument but due to a weakness in it, is difficult to say that this verse
is decisive with regard to the prohibition of Mut'ah. The fact is that the Holy Prophet
enjoined the final and absolute prohibition if Mut'ah in the year of the Conquest of
Makkah, but before it Mut'ah was allowed according to several authentic traditions. If
Mut'ah had been prohibited in this case, which was admittedly revealed at Makkah several
years before the migration, how can it be imagined that the Holy Prophet kept the
prohibition in abeyance till the conquest of Makkah?" Tahfeem ul Quran, Volume 8, Page 12
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