... for they do not know what they are talking about!
Bismikaallahuma has
tried
to deal with my refutation of Asif Iqbal’s slanders against
God’s true prophets, specifically his
assertion
that Daniel was a homosexual. The author of this particular response article goes by the name Pro-Pas.
He begins his reply with:
In the usual vein of missionary tradition1,
the missionaries have made a rather pathetic attempt at "refuting" one of our
articles which shows the Bible perversion in encouraging homosexuality. Previously,
we have shown in another exposition how the so-called "apostle"
from Tarsus had displayed some homosexual tendencies. In the later part of this article,
we will provide some examples of how the Christians have practised this particular
teaching from the Bible in their day-to-day lives.
But we will come to that later. Our purpose here now is to refute the missionary's
"reading into the text" and his vicious and belligerent attempt to "turn
the tables" on Islam by claiming that the Qur'an and the Sunnah encourages homosexual
behaviour. In the words of the missionary:
"…we will be using Iqbal’s own arguments against his god and his
prophet, just as we did it the last time, when they attacked the Apostle Paul."2
RESPONSE:
It is rather apparent that this gentleman hasn’t bothered pondering over my reason
for applying Iqbal’s method of biblical exegesis to Islam. He actually believes I claimed
that Islam encourages homosexual behavior. Nowhere in this article
did I state anything like that.
His response so totally missed the mark that one seriously has to wonder why.
There are three possibilities:
(a) He only reacted emotionally to seeing somebody associating Muhammad and homosexuality
and, without carefully reading the structure of the argument, he wrote against this unjust
accusation, i.e. his emotionality and carelessness resulted in utter nonsense.
(b) He carefully read the paper, but he simply does not know what a PARODY is.
The approach was too subtle, the structure of the argument beyond his ability of
comprehension. In his view "turning the table," means claiming that Islam
encourages homosexual behavior, because the Muslim article had accused the Bible of
endorsing it. If you accuse our prophet of being a homosexual, I will accuse your prophet
of being a homosexual, i.e. in his view my article was merely a tit-for-tat reaction, a
crude revenge. However, in his view, the Holy Bible can legitimately be accused of this
but Islam cannot, because Islam clearly condemns homosexuality. Therefore, I do not have a
right to "turn the tables". This seems to be the real reason for what he wrote,
i.e. an utter lack of reading comprehension.
(c) He has understood why I wrote what I wrote but simply doesn’t care. He
deliberately repeats the lies and slander against the Holy Bible and treats my article
as if I had actually accused Islam of promoting homosexuality.
The purpose of my article was to show that if a Muslim wants to distort what the Bible
teaches about issues such as homosexuality then the same thing can be done to the Quran,
but with even more damaging results.
Does the author admit that this Muslim method of eisegesis displayed in Iqbal’s
article is dishonest and a deliberate perversion of what the Bible says? Not directly,
but indirectly he does since it is apparent that he is irate with my applying this same
reasoning to his prophet. This shows that he knows that this approach is reprehensible
and nothing more than blatant deception. But does he reprimand his colleagues for daring
to slander God’s true prophets in the manner in which they do? Not even close.
Again, is his support of Iqbal’s distortions deliberate, or merely Pro-Pas’
inability to see what is going on?
In fact, he so much as dares to repeat his team’s lies by saying that the Holy
Bible allows for homosexuality and that Paul displayed homosexual tendencies! And yet he
has the audacity to complain about me turning the tables against his book and completely
ignores why I decided to interpret the Quran and Muhammad’s actions the way I did
(i.e. to clearly show how perverted such an approach is).
Whatever the reason for it, it is simply pathetic to see this author’s complete
failure to engage my arguments and deal with the issues that I had raised. All he could
do is distort my points or simply ignore them since my intention wasn’t to prove
that Muhammad was a homosexual. Rather, my intention was to show what would happen if we
were to apply the same slanderous approach and lies of Iqbal regarding Daniel being gay
to Muhammad and his religion.
He writes:
The missionary continues this humourous[sic] exposition by stating the
following:
"In his haste to slander God’s true prophets Iqbal apparently forgot that
Arabic is a cognate language of Hebrew and has similar words such as rahman and rahim.
Both of these terms come from the same root from which we get the Arabic word for womb,
rahm."
When speaking of cognates, the missionary is duly reminded that he seems to have
forgotten his very rule when he brashly claimed in another
article of his that ahad(un) means "one of…" and not
simply "one", as it is understood by its dictionary definition. Indeed, when
speaking about cognates, the Hebrew echad corresponds closely with ahad.
This issue will be dealt with in another paper which will be forthcoming soon,
insha'allah. The point here is that we find it amusing that the missionary is talking
about cognates when it comes to the very disturbing fact about the Hebrew raHamim
and the homosexual tendencies of Daniel according to the Biblical account.
In any case, the missionary himself is committing an "etymological fallacy",
as he so loves to claim. The Hebrew cognate for the Arabic rahman is rachuwm,
as was shown in
another
paper. Hence the missionary claim that the word "…come from the same
root from which we get the Arabic word for womb, rahm" only exists in the missionary's
mind in his usual rewriting of Semitic etymology, as it is tradition in the history of their
lying polemics.
RESPONSE:
It seems that we need to teach the author to not just read our articles carefully so as
to avoid making such egregious errors, but we need to also encourage him to read his own
links carefully as well. It is apparent that he hasn’t even read the very article
which he links to and which supposedly refutes me, since his own source actually proves
I was right! Here is what it says:
The equivalent word for ar-rahman in the Hebrew WOULD BE "HA-RACHMAN", as
found in Rivlin's Hebrew translation of the Qur'ân, Qur'ân, 1:1:
In the name of God, Ha-Rachman, the Merciful[10] …
This is further collaborated when WE REFER TO THE ROOT WORD OF HA-RACHMAN, WHICH IS
RACHUWM, in Strong's number 7349 and find the following:
rachuwm rakh-oom`; from 7355; compassionate:- full of compassion, merciful.[13]
Thus we see that rachuwm and rahma SHARE THE SAME R-H-M COGNATE, AND THUS WE HAVE
ESTABLISHED a solid etymological connection between both words. Of course, there is
another Hebrew word that is even closer to raheem (RHYM) than rachuwm is, and that is the
exact Hebrew equivalent! Consider the following: …
4) Nowhere in Strong's or in the BDB/Gesenius lexicons do we find any correlation of
RIMMON with the Arabic word ar-rahman or its root word rahma. The Hebrew equivalent for
rahma is the word rachuwm. Both rahma (Ar.) and rachuwm (Heb.) SHARE THE SAME R-H-M COGNATE.
(Source; capital and bold emphasis ours)
Let us now see what the root word of the Hebrew racham(im) is, the word which Iqbal said
proved that Daniel was gay:
(Strong’s 07356)
racham {rakh'-am} from 07355
n m 1) womb
n m abs pl intens 2) compassion (Source)
According to this dictionary, racham(im) COMES FROM THE VERY SAME ROOT (number 7355)
AS DOES RACHUWM! So if rachuwm, racham(im), and rahma share the same R-H-M root then how in
the world can I be accused of lying? More importantly the author has indirectly slandered
his prophet for being a liar since he is the one that supposedly said that rahman comes from
the same word for womb. Let me quote him once again:
Narrated Abu Huraira:
The Prophet said, "The word 'Ar-Rahm (womb) DERIVES ITS NAME FROM Ar-Rahman
(i.e., one of the names of Allah) and Allah said: ‘I will keep good relation
with the one who will keep good relation with you, (womb i.e. Kith and Kin) and sever
the relation with him who will sever the relation with you, (womb, i.e. Kith and Kin).
(Sahih al-Bukhari, Volume 8, Book 73,
Number 17)
Narrated 'Aisha:
(the wife of the Prophet) The Prophet said, "The word 'Ar-Rahm' (womb) DERIVES
ITS NAME FROM 'Ar-Rahman' (i.e. Allah). So whosoever keeps good relations with it
(womb i.e. Kith and kin), Allah will keep good relations with him, and whosoever will
sever it (i.e. severs his bonds of Kith and kin) Allah too will sever His relations with
him. (Sahih al-Bukhari, Volume 8, Book 73,
Number 18)
Thus, if I am wrong then so was Muhammad!
Let us break this down step by step so that this time the author won’t miss it:
The Hebrew words racham(im), rachman, rachuwm as well as the Arabic words rahman,
rahm all share the same Semitic root, R-H-M.
Muhammad believed that the word Rahman originated from the word Rahm, womb.
And if Bismikaallahuma’s "response" to my ahad paper is anything like
this rebuttal, then there really won’t be much to refute. In fact, I have been
eagerly waiting for this so-called response to be posted since I am quite confident by
God’s grace that it will only end up strengthening my arguments and conclusions.
The author then says:
Yet the missionary concludes by stating:
"Applying Iqbal’s logic we must conclude that Allah and his messenger
showed their mercy by having sexual relations with both male and female believers. Allah
used Muhammad to show men his love by having his messenger engage in homosexual acts with
them."
As amusing as the imagination of the missionary is, we must kindly remind him that
the penalty for homosexuality is very harsh in Islam, and before we allow his imagination
to run away with him, let us now kindly quote for him a hadith from the Prophet (P) who
says the following about the punishment for homosexuals:
"Whoever gratifies his sexual urge with another (individual} of his own sex, the
Almighty will not so much as look at him."
Now that we have seen the above hadith, we should kindly ask the missionary from where
did he get his fatwa, and how will he reconcile this with the general
Islamic opinion on homosexuality? We are hence
strongly reminded of the following from Jalal Abualrub:
When the Evangelist Becomes A Shaykh…
RESPONSE:
Again, the lack of reading comprehension on the part of Pro-Pas is incredible (or it
is even worse, see option (c) above). Nowhere in this article did I claim that Allah and
Muhammad ARE homosexuals. I said that IF Iqbal’s reasoning is correct, i.e. deriving
homosexuality from the word rahamim because its root consonants are R-H-M, THEN
the same would also hold for Allah and Muhammad since a similar word with the same root is
used regularly for both of them. Moreover, if one then looks with this prejudice at some
narrations about Muhammad one can easily find lots of further evidence for this misguided
theory.
My paper only showed how ridiculous Iqbal’s theory is, and did so in two ways.
First by direct refutation from the Bible and then by way of parody, i.e. by applying the
same reasoning on the Quran and hadith. The Muslim reader was supposed to see, from the
ridiculous implications, that the assumption could not have been right, i.e. Iqbal’s
accusations are wrong since his assumptions lead to ridiculous conclusions. Therefore,
Pro-Pas’ whole paper is void.
Nevertheless, let me correct some of his wrong statements. In the first place,
Islam’s harsh treatment of homosexuality doesn’t help Pro-Pas’ case anyway
since the Holy Bible is even more explicit in its condemnation of homosexuality but this
still doesn’t stop his colleagues from coming to the erroneous conclusion that
certain God-fearing prophets were homosexuals. So why should it be any different for Islam
and Muhammad?
Moreover, we need to kindly remind him that the Quran fails to prescribe any kind of
penalty for homosexuality. We need to further remind him that his own Muslim brothers have
conclusively proven that those narrations prescribing "harsh" penalties for such
behavior are fraudulent, forgeries concocted by Muslims without any Quranic or prophetic
warrant:
http://www.islamicperspectives.com/Stoning5.htm#Chapter5
We will let the author debate his Muslim brother Dr. Ahmad Shafaat on whether Islam
does indeed prescribe any kind of punishment for homosexuality.
The author should also try to convince this Shia Muslim website that homosexuality is
forbidden since they have provided documentation that many of the companions and early
Muslims were actually sodomites and homosexuals:
The author concludes by committing the fallacy of ad populum, or appealing to
the masses, to try to discredit the Holy Bible. In so doing he ends up committing
the fallacy of non sequitur since his conclusion does not follow from his argument
or assertion. He focuses his attention on the fact that in nations that are supposedly
predominately Christian, such as America, there are powerful political pressure groups
which are trying to legalize same-sex marriages.
This he blames on the teachings of the Holy Bible! On the contrary, it is precisely
because these nations have abandoned their biblical roots that such gross and immoral
practices are prevailing and spreading throughout the lands. Adhering to the Holy Bible
leads to godliness and purity, not immorality and sexual perversion. It is the teachings
of Islam which leads to sexual perversion, immorality, thievery, rape, and murder.
The fact is that there are no Christian nations in the sense of there being governments
which rule according to the teachings of the Holy Bible. So instead of attacking the Holy
Bible on the basis of what some nations or individuals do, the author needs to judge
whether these actions are in conformity with the teachings of the Holy Bible. In other
words, a person doesn’t judge either the Holy Bible or the Quran by the actions of
the people but judges the actions of the people by what is written in these texts.
We would like to conclude this rebuttal with some friendly advise to MENJ. You need to get
rid of your current team of writers since they are only causing your site embarassment upon
embarrassment. Try to find some individuals who can actually write decent enough responses
so as to avoid causing you such problems. In fact, your current policy of trying to crank out
a response to us within
72 hours is severely backfiring against you, since the kind of materials you are producing
is becoming nearly as bad as the material being produced by Osama Abdallah.
And indeed only the true Triune God knows best!
Sam Shamoun,
with some input coming from Jochen Katz
The Gospels and Acts speak of God sending an angel of the Lord to make his purpose known to specific individuals:
“Now when they had departed, behold, an angel of the Lord (angelos Kyriou) appeared to Joseph in a dream, saying, “Arise and take the young child and his mother,
The Synod of Laodicea has been dated by scholars anywhere between the years 343 and 381 AD, between the Sardican and the Second Ecumenical Council. I quote what this Synod wrote in respect to Sabbath keeping.
Canon 16
The Gospels are to be read on the Sabbath [i.e. Saturday]